John 10:33-36
[33]The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
[34]Jesus answered them, Is it not written in your law, I said, Ye are gods?
[35]If he called them gods, unto whom the word of God came, and the scripture cannot be broken;
[36]Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?

In John 10:34 Jesus quoted Psalms 82 where human judges are referred to as gods in the sense that they were God’s representatives in judging between their fellow men since their words would be final in such matters, and they were divinely appointed to their office (Exo 22:28). But Jesus quoted that portion to show that he couldn’t be accused of blasphemy when he truly was God incarnate, when whereas men who were merely representatives of God in a sense, could be called gods and properly understood and not accused of blasphemy. In other words, he was kind of saying: If those could be understood and not accused of blasphemy, why can’t you guys understand I am God incarnate and not accused me of blasphemy? If you guys can receive the assertion of Scriptures on those judges to whom the word of God came, and scriptures cannot be broken, why can’t you receive the claim of he whom the Father has sanctified and sent into the world that he is the Son of God — God in the very sense of incarnate?

Jesus wasn’t recognizing false gods or claiming he was one of such lesser gods. He is God — one with the Father in the Godhead.